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Q4Aspirin inhibits cyclooxygenase by:

A. Aspirin transfers an acetyl group to a Ser, permanently blocking the enzyme. Reversible competitors (such as ibuprofen) behave differently, and aspirin does not target ES or heme. From the 1A pack: Amino Acids, Proteins and Enzymes

Q5Iron in the heme of hemoglobin must be in which state to bind oxygen?

A. Fe2+ (ferrous) binds O2 reversibly. Fe3+ (methemoglobin) does not bind oxygen, and Fe0 and Fe4+ are not the physiological states in heme. From the 1A pack: Amino Acids, Proteins and Enzymes

Q6A reaction has a standard delta G of +4.2 kcal/mol. It is coupled to ATP hydrolysis (-7.3 kcal/mol). What is the delta G of the coupled reaction?

D. Coupled reactions add: +4.2 + (-7.3) = -3.1 kcal/mol, so it is favorable. +11.5 and -11.5 result from adding magnitudes with the wrong signs, and +3.1 flips the sign of the sum. From the 1D pack: Metabolism and Bioenergetics

Q7How many high-energy phosphate bonds are consumed to make one glucose from two pyruvate?

C. Two pyruvate carboxylase steps use 2 ATP, two PEPCK steps use 2 GTP, and two phosphoglycerate kinase steps in reverse use 2 ATP, totaling 6 (4 ATP and 2 GTP). From the 1D pack: Metabolism and Bioenergetics

Q8A child has hepatomegaly and fasting hypoglycemia, and glycogen has a normal structure. Which enzyme is the most likely defect?

D. G6Pase deficiency (von Gierke) causes hypoglycemia with massive hepatomegaly and normal glycogen structure. Branching enzyme gives abnormal structure, Pompe affects lysosomes and the heart, and muscle phosphorylase affects muscle only. From the 1D pack: Metabolism and Bioenergetics

Q9A patient on a statin has a markedly lower hepatic cholesterol synthesis rate. Which compensatory change is expected?

C. Low sterol activates SREBP-2 processing, which raises LDL receptor expression and clears more LDL from plasma, lowering LDL. Reductase transcription rises, not falls, and SREBP-2 processing increases rather than decreases. From the 1D pack: Metabolism and Bioenergetics

Q10A person has fasted for 5 days. Compared with day 1, which change is expected?

D. By day 5 ketones are the major brain fuel, and nitrogen loss is reduced. Liver glycogen is gone, ketones are high, and insulin is low. From the 1D pack: Metabolism and Bioenergetics

Q11Two DNA duplexes of equal length have melting temperatures of 85 C and 72 C. The higher Tm sample most likely has

D. G-C pairs have three hydrogen bonds and stack more strongly, so more G-C raises Tm. More A-T lowers Tm, nicks do not raise stability, and lower salt would lower Tm by increasing phosphate repulsion. From the 1B pack: DNA, Genetic Information and Gene Expression

Q12Why do human chromosomes need many replication origins?

C. At about 50 nt/s, a single origin could not copy hundreds of millions of base pairs in S phase, so many origins fire in parallel. Human chromosomes are linear, and origins fire once per cycle because of licensing. From the 1B pack: DNA, Genetic Information and Gene Expression

Q13The template strand of a gene is 3'-TACGTTAA-5'. What is the mRNA?

C. RNA pairs antiparallel with the template and uses U for T: 5'-AUGCAAUU-3'. The first option copies the template, the second contains T, and the last is written in the wrong direction. From the 1B pack: DNA, Genetic Information and Gene Expression

Q14A mutant activator keeps its DNA-binding domain but lacks its activation domain. In the cell it would most likely

D. The DNA-binding domain still docks on the enhancer, but without the activation domain it cannot recruit coactivators. It can even compete with the normal activator. From the 1B pack: DNA, Genetic Information and Gene Expression

Q15In a Sanger reaction the ddNTP to dNTP ratio is increased tenfold. The fragments will

C. A higher ddNTP fraction terminates chains earlier, producing shorter fragments. Lower ddNTP would give longer fragments, and termination still occurs at multiple positions. From the 1B pack: DNA, Genetic Information and Gene Expression

Q16What is the IUPAC name of CH3CH2CONH2?

D. The three-carbon chain with a C(=O)NH2 group is a propanamide. Propanamine would be an amine, propanoic acid has COOH, and N-methylethanamide has a CH3 on nitrogen and only two chain carbons. From the 5D pack: Biologically Relevant Molecules and Organic Reactivity

Q17Cyclohexanone reacts with a secondary amine (pyrrolidine) and acid catalyst, with water removal. The major product is:

A. A secondary amine has only one N-H, so after forming the carbinolamine it cannot make a neutral C=N and instead loses an alpha proton to give an enamine. Imines come from primary amines, an amide needs an acyl derivative, and an acetal needs two alcohols. From the 5D pack: Biologically Relevant Molecules and Organic Reactivity

Q18Which species is aromatic?

D. Pyrrole is planar and cyclic with six pi electrons, four from the double bonds and two from nitrogen. Cyclobutadiene (4 pi electrons) and the cyclopentadienyl cation (4) are antiaromatic, and cyclooctatetraene is nonplanar and nonaromatic. From the 5D pack: Biologically Relevant Molecules and Organic Reactivity

Q19A diterpene contains how many isoprene units?

D. Terpenes are named by units: mono 2, sesqui 3, di 4, tri 6. A diterpene has 20 carbons. Two is a monoterpene, three a sesquiterpene, and six a triterpene such as squalene. From the 5D pack: Biologically Relevant Molecules and Organic Reactivity

Q20Which compound has the highest boiling point at similar molar mass?

A. A carboxylic acid forms strong hydrogen-bonded dimers, giving a higher boiling point than even the alcohol. The aldehyde and ester cannot donate hydrogen bonds, so they boil lower. From the 5D pack: Biologically Relevant Molecules and Organic Reactivity

Q21A patient develops ascending muscle weakness two weeks after a viral infection, and nerve conduction is slowed. Which cells are the most likely target?

A. Guillain-Barre syndrome attacks PNS myelin, made by Schwann cells, which slows conduction. Oligodendrocytes make CNS myelin and are involved in multiple sclerosis. Astrocytes and microglia do not form myelin. From the 3A pack: Nervous and Endocrine Systems

Q22Which structure belongs to the PNS?

D. The dorsal root ganglion lies outside the cord and holds sensory neuron cell bodies. The dorsal horn and central canal are inside the cord, and the corpus callosum is in the brain. From the 3A pack: Nervous and Endocrine Systems

Q23A subject notices the difference between 100 g and 102 g. Using Weber's law, what difference is needed to notice a change from 400 g?

C. The JND is a constant fraction (2 percent) of the baseline, so 400 g needs 8 g. A constant 2 g would ignore the baseline, and 4 g or 40 g use the wrong fraction. From the 3A pack: Nervous and Endocrine Systems

Q24After a head injury, a patient loses the sense of smell. What is the most likely damage?

B. Fine olfactory axons cross the cribriform plate to the olfactory bulb and can be sheared by trauma. The optic chiasm, vagus and cochlear nerve serve other senses. From the 3A pack: Nervous and Endocrine Systems

Q25A patient stops long-term prednisone abruptly and becomes weak and hypotensive. Why?

A. Chronic glucocorticoid suppresses CRH and ACTH, leading to adrenal atrophy and cortisol deficiency when the drug stops. Aldosterone is usually preserved because it depends on RAAS, and the medulla does not make cortisol. From the 3A pack: Nervous and Endocrine Systems

Q26A patient with pulmonary fibrosis has a normal alveolar PO2 but a low arterial PO2. What is the best explanation?

B. Fick's law says diffusion falls as membrane thickness increases, so equilibration is incomplete and PaO2 lags behind alveolar PO2. Surfactant loss lowers compliance, dead space affects ventilation not diffusion, and carbonic anhydrase handles CO2. From the 3B pack: Organ Systems

Q27A patient on warfarin has a prolonged INR. Which clotting factor is NOT reduced?

B. Warfarin blocks vitamin K recycling, lowering the vitamin K-dependent factors II, VII, IX and X. Factor VIII is not vitamin K dependent. From the 3B pack: Organ Systems

Q28A mouse lacks functional MHC II. Which defect is expected?

D. MHC II presents peptide to CD4 helper cells, which drive B cell class switching and memory. CD8 cells use MHC I, NK cells and complement do not require MHC II. From the 3B pack: Organ Systems

Q29Which structure senses distal tubular NaCl and regulates the afferent arteriole?

D. The macula densa signals tubuloglomerular feedback and renin release. Podocytes form the filtration slits, vasa recta preserve the gradient, and principal cells respond to ADH and aldosterone. From the 3B pack: Organ Systems

Q30An organophosphate pesticide inhibits acetylcholinesterase. What happens at the neuromuscular junction?

A. Persistent ACh keeps the end plate depolarized and desensitized. Botulinum toxin blocks release, curare blocks receptors, and dantrolene-type drugs affect SR Ca2+ release. From the 3B pack: Organ Systems

Q31A new antibiotic selectively blocks the 30S ribosomal subunit. Why is it relatively safe for human cells?

C. Prokaryotes have 70S ribosomes (50S + 30S). Eukaryotic cytosolic ribosomes are 80S (60S + 40S) and are not blocked. Human cells do have ribosomes, they are in the cytoplasm and on the ER, and drug entry is not the selectivity mechanism. From the 2A pack: Cells, Membranes and Tissues

Q32A membrane permeable only to water separates 0.2 M glucose on the left from 0.1 M NaCl on the right. What happens?

A. NaCl gives two particles, so 0.1 M NaCl is 0.2 Osm, equal to 0.2 M glucose (0.2 Osm). With equal osmolarity there is no net water flow, so neither direction is favored. Solutes cannot cross, so NaCl does not move either. From the 2A pack: Cells, Membranes and Tissues

Q33A mutation prevents the LDL receptor from binding clathrin adaptors. LDL will

C. The receptor still recognizes LDL, but clathrin-coated pit formation needs the adaptor interaction, so uptake fails. Binding is intact, so it does bind, internalization is not normal, and extracellular degradation is not a feature. From the 2A pack: Cells, Membranes and Tissues

Q34Severe diarrhea occurs from a mutation that makes intestinal tight junctions leaky. The most likely explanation is

A. Tight junctions limit paracellular movement. When leaky, solutes and water pass between cells. Gap junctions do not seal the epithelium, hemidesmosomes anchor to the matrix, and endocytosis is unrelated. From the 2A pack: Cells, Membranes and Tissues

Q35Which finding best supports the bacterial origin of mitochondria?

C. A circular genome and binary-fission-like division resemble bacteria. ATP production and widespread distribution do not show origin. Nuclear-encoded mitochondrial proteins reflect gene transfer, not an origin as such. From the 2A pack: Cells, Membranes and Tissues

Q36Which of the following is a state function?

B. Entropy depends only on the state. Heat and work depend on the path, and the path itself is not a property of a state. The other choices fail because each describes a quantity tied to how the change happened. From the 5E pack: Chemical Thermodynamics and Kinetics

Q37During the boiling of water at 1 atm, the heat supplied

B. At the plateau, energy overcomes intermolecular attractions. T and average KE stay constant, and vapor pressure equals the external pressure. From the 5E pack: Chemical Thermodynamics and Kinetics

Q38For a spontaneous process, ΔS(system) = -40 J/K. This is possible if

B. The second law needs ΔS(universe) > 0. A system can lose entropy when the surroundings gain more. In an isolated system ΔS(sys) itself must be positive. From the 5E pack: Chemical Thermodynamics and Kinetics

Q39A reaction has k = 4.0 x 10^-3 s^-1. The overall order is

B. A unit of s^-1 is the signature of first order, because rate (M/s) = k[A] requires k in s^-1. Zero order would need M/s, second order M^-1 s^-1, and third order M^-2 s^-1. From the 5E pack: Chemical Thermodynamics and Kinetics

Q40Which conditions favor the thermodynamic product?

B. Equilibration lets material funnel to the most stable product. Low T, short time, and irreversibility lock in the kinetic product. From the 5E pack: Chemical Thermodynamics and Kinetics

Q41Which species acts as a Lewis acid in AlCl3 + Cl- -> AlCl4-?

A. AlCl3 has an empty orbital on aluminum and accepts an electron pair from Cl-. Chloride is the donor (Lewis base). AlCl4- is the product. The Lewis definition does not require protons, so the last option is wrong. From the 5A pack: Water, Solutions, Acids and Bases

Q42At pH 7.4, which phosphate species pair dominates (pKa2 = 7.20)?

A. pH is 0.2 above pKa2, so the ratio is 10^0.2 = 1.6 HPO4 2- per H2PO4-. H3PO4 is minor above pH 4. PO4 3- appears only near pKa3 (12.35), and both species are present, not just H2PO4-. From the 5A pack: Water, Solutions, Acids and Bases

Q43A weak base B (0.10 M, pKb 4.75) is half-neutralized by HCl. The pH is:

A. At half-equivalence [B] = [BH+], so pH = pKa of BH+ = 14 - 4.75 = 9.25. The value 4.75 is the pKb (a pOH here), 7.00 is for a strong acid and strong base, and 5.28 is the pH at full equivalence. From the 5A pack: Water, Solutions, Acids and Bases

Q44Ksp of PbI2 is 7.1 x 10^-9. Its molar solubility is closest to:

A. Ksp = 4s^3, so s = (7.1e-9/4)^(1/3) = 1.2e-3 M. 8.4e-5 uses s^2 (the AB formula), 7.1e-9 is the Ksp itself, and 1.8e-3 uses the wrong power. From the 5A pack: Water, Solutions, Acids and Bases

Q45The osmotic pressure of 0.050 M CaCl2 at 300 K (R = 0.0821 L atm/mol K, i = 3) is closest to:

A. pi = iMRT = 3 x 0.050 x 0.0821 x 300 = 3.7 atm. 1.2 atm omits i, 0.12 atm uses the wrong power of ten, and 11 atm is three times too large. From the 5A pack: Water, Solutions, Acids and Bases

Q46Two point charges exert a force F on each other. One charge is tripled and the separation is halved. The new force is:

D. Tripling one charge multiplies F by 3, and halving r multiplies it by 4 (inverse square), so F becomes 12F. 6F misses the square on r, 3F/4 puts the factor on the wrong side, and 3F/2 mixes the two errors. From the 4C pack: Electrostatics, Circuits, Magnetism and Electrochemistry

Q47A battery with an open-circuit voltage of 9.0 V delivers 2.0 A with a terminal voltage of 6.0 V. What is its internal resistance?

B. The lost voltage is 9.0 - 6.0 = 3.0 V across r, so r = 3.0 V/2.0 A = 1.5 ohm. 3.0 ohm is the external resistance (6.0/2.0), 4.5 ohm would be 9.0/2.0 (the total resistance), and 0.67 ohm inverts the ratio. From the 4C pack: Electrostatics, Circuits, Magnetism and Electrochemistry

Q48A 2.0 uF capacitor discharges through a 1.0 megohm resistor. About how long does it take for the voltage to fall to half its starting value?

D. tau = RC = 2.0 s and the half-time is tau ln 2 = 0.693 x 2.0 = 1.4 s. 2.0 s is the time to reach 37 percent, 0.50 s inverts tau, and 4.0 s is 2 tau (13.5 percent left). From the 4C pack: Electrostatics, Circuits, Magnetism and Electrochemistry

Q49A 0.20 m wire carrying 4.0 A is perpendicular to a 0.30 T field. The magnetic force on the wire is:

B. F = BIL sin 90 = (0.30)(4.0)(0.20) = 0.24 N. 0.060 N is B x L x 1 (forgetting the current), 0.015 N is a misplaced decimal, and 3.8 N inverts the arithmetic. From the 4C pack: Electrostatics, Circuits, Magnetism and Electrochemistry

Q50Three metals have standard reduction potentials A+/A = +0.50 V, B2+/B = -0.20 V, and C+/C = -1.00 V. Which pair gives a galvanic cell with the largest E0 cell?

D. The largest E0 comes from the most negative anode and the most positive cathode: 0.50 - (-1.00) = 1.50 V with C as the anode and A as the cathode. The 0.70 V and 0.80 V pairs are galvanic but smaller, and the last pair reverses the roles, giving a negative (nonspontaneous) value. From the 4C pack: Electrostatics, Circuits, Magnetism and Electrochemistry

Q51A sprinter runs at 36 km/h. Her speed in m/s is

A. Divide km/h by 3.6: 36/3.6 = 10 m/s. Multiplying by 3.6 gives 129.6, the common inversion error. The speed is not unchanged in m/s, and 1.0 is off by a factor of ten. From the 4A pack: Motion, Forces, Work and Energy

Q52A 0.40 kg ball on a 0.80 m string moves in a horizontal circle at 4.0 m/s. The tension is

A. T = m v^2/r = 0.40 x 16/0.80 = 8.0 N. The value 2.0 N forgets to square the speed (mv/r), 6.4 N forgets to divide by the radius, and 20 N is the acceleration v^2/r with the mass left out. From the 4A pack: Motion, Forces, Work and Energy

Q53A spring with k = 300 N/m is stretched 0.20 m from equilibrium. The stored energy is

D. U = 1/2 k x^2 = 0.5 x 300 x 0.04 = 6.0 J. The value 12 J forgets the 1/2, 60 J mistakes the spring force kx = 60 N for an energy, and 3.0 J halves again. From the 4A pack: Motion, Forces, Work and Energy

Q54A crowbar has an effort arm of 1.2 m and a load arm of 0.20 m. Ideally, an effort of 50 N lifts a load of

D. Ideal MA = 1.2/0.20 = 6, so the load is 6 x 50 = 300 N. The value 8.3 N divides by the arm ratio instead of multiplying, 250 N uses a ratio of 5, and 60 N uses a ratio of 1.2. From the 4A pack: Motion, Forces, Work and Energy

Q55A block of density 700 kg/m³ floats in a liquid of specific gravity 0.85. What fraction of the block is submerged?

C. Submerged fraction equals ρ_block/ρ_liquid = 700/850 = 0.82. The 70% figure would be correct only in water. 85% uses the SG as the fraction, and 100% would mean the block is neutrally buoyant or sinking. From the 4B pack: Fluids and Gas Behavior

Q56A metal object weighs 12 N in air and 9.0 N when fully submerged in water. What is its specific gravity?

D. F_b = 12 − 9.0 = 3.0 N. SG = W_air/F_b = 12/3.0 = 4.0. The 1.3 value divides air weight by apparent weight. 3.0 is the buoyant force itself, and 0.75 inverts the ratio of apparent weight to air weight. From the 4B pack: Fluids and Gas Behavior

Q57A soap bubble has a radius of 1.0 cm and a film surface tension of 0.025 N/m. The excess pressure inside is about:

D. A soap bubble has two surfaces, so ΔP = 4γ/r = 4 × 0.025/0.010 = 10 Pa. 5 Pa uses 2γ/r, which fits a single surface. 2.5 Pa uses γ/r alone, and 1000 Pa misplaces the units. From the 4B pack: Fluids and Gas Behavior

Q58What is the pressure of 0.20 mol of ideal gas in 4.0 L at 27 °C?

C. T = 300 K. P = nRT/V = (0.20 × 0.0821 × 300)/4.0 = 1.23 atm. 0.12 atm drops a factor of ten and 12 atm adds one. Using 273 K instead of 300 K gives 1.1 atm. From the 4B pack: Fluids and Gas Behavior

Q59A wave on a string has f = 20 Hz and λ = 0.50 m. The tension is quadrupled while the source still vibrates at 20 Hz. The new wavelength is:

B. Speed is √(T/μ), so quadrupling T doubles v from 10 to 20 m/s. Frequency is fixed by the source at 20 Hz, so λ = v/f = 1.0 m. 0.25 m would result from a halved speed. 0.50 m ignores the speed change, and 2.0 m would need v to quadruple. From the 4D pack: Waves, Sound, Light and Optics

Q60A sonar pulse in seawater (v = 1500 m/s) returns from the bottom 0.20 s after it is sent. The depth is:

B. The pulse goes down and back, so d = vt/2 = 1500 × 0.20/2 = 150 m. 300 m forgets the factor of two. 75 m halves it twice, and 7500 m divides speed by time instead of multiplying. From the 4D pack: Waves, Sound, Light and Optics

Q61An ultrasound echo returns 130 μs after the pulse is sent. In tissue (v = 1540 m/s) the reflector is at a depth of:

C. d = vt/2 = 1540 × 130 × 10^-6/2 = 0.10 m. 20 cm omits the half. 5.0 cm is the 65 μs result, and 1.0 cm would be an order of magnitude off. From the 4D pack: Waves, Sound, Light and Optics

Q62White light enters a glass prism. Compared with red light, violet light in the glass has:

A. n is larger for violet, so v = c/n is lower, and the greater index also bends it more. A higher speed would go with the red light. A lower speed cannot come with a smaller deviation, and the speeds differ, which is why dispersion occurs. From the 4D pack: Waves, Sound, Light and Optics

Q63A swimmer opening their eyes underwater sees a blurry image mainly because:

D. The cornea (n about 1.38) normally refracts light strongly at the air interface. Against water (n = 1.33) there is almost no index change, so most of the power is lost and the image falls far behind the retina. The lens still works. Water does not absorb enough light over a short path to cause blur, and the retina is unaffected. From the 4D pack: Waves, Sound, Light and Optics

Q64A gene has four alleles in a population. How many alleles can a single diploid person carry at that autosomal locus?

A. Each person inherits one allele from each parent, so two at most, even if the population carries many. Four would be the population total here, one applies to hemizygous genes, and eight has no basis. From the 1C pack: Heredity, Population Genetics and Evolution

Q65AaBbCc x AaBbCc. What fraction of offspring is A_ B_ C_ (dominant for all)?

C. Each gene gives a dominant phenotype with probability 3/4, so (3/4)^3 = 27/64. The value 9/16 applies to two genes, 3/4 to one gene, and 1/64 to aabbcc. From the 1C pack: Heredity, Population Genetics and Evolution

Q66In a test cross, 60 of 400 offspring are recombinant for two genes. How many map units apart are they?

A. RF = 60/400 x 100 = 15 percent, or 15 map units. Sixty is the raw count, six is a power-of-ten slip, and forty is the parental share in percent for another case. From the 1C pack: Heredity, Population Genetics and Evolution

Q67Which assumption of Hardy-Weinberg is broken when a population of 40 individuals is cut off from others?

C. A tiny population allows strong drift, which is the violation of a large size assumption. The scenario does not describe nonrandom mating, mutation, or selection. From the 1C pack: Heredity, Population Genetics and Evolution

Q68The wings of bats and insects both allow flight, but the structures are unrelated in origin. These are:

A. Different ancestry with similar function is analogy by convergence. Homologous structures share ancestry, and vestigial ones lost function. From the 1C pack: Heredity, Population Genetics and Evolution

Q69A flow cytometry histogram of a growing culture shows two peaks, at 2C and 4C. Cells in the 4C peak are in:

D. Cells at 4C have replicated their DNA but not yet divided, so they are in G2 or M. G1 and G0 cells have 2C, and cells in early S phase lie between the two peaks. From the 2C pack: Cell Division, Development and Reproduction

Q70A tumor has a mutation that prevents Rb from binding E2F. The most likely effect is:

B. Without Rb-E2F binding, E2F is free and S phase genes are active regardless of growth signals. This removes a brake, so arrest is not expected, and the mutation does not directly involve p53 or telomerase. From the 2C pack: Cell Division, Development and Reproduction

Q71Mitochondrial DNA is maternally inherited mainly because:

D. Sperm have mitochondria in the midpiece, but they are degraded in the zygote. The egg keeps its own. Sperm mitochondria do exist and function. From the 2C pack: Cell Division, Development and Reproduction

Q72Which pair of tissues derives from neural crest?

B. Neural crest forms melanocytes, adrenal medulla, Schwann cells and sensory and autonomic neurons. Hepatocytes and pancreatic cells are endoderm, muscle and bone are mesoderm, and the lens and retina arise from surface ectoderm and neuroectoderm. From the 2C pack: Cell Division, Development and Reproduction

Q73Embryos lacking maternal bicoid mRNA will most likely lack:

D. Bicoid is an anterior morphogen, so loss gives embryos missing head and thorax. Posterior structures depend on other maternal factors. Neural crest is not tested, and Hox genes in the abdomen are still expressed. From the 2C pack: Cell Division, Development and Reproduction

Q74A culture begins log growth with 3.0 x 10^3 cells/mL and a generation time of 40 minutes. How many cells/mL after 4 hours?

B. 4 hours is 240 minutes, so n = 240/40 = 6. N = 3.0 x 10^3 x 2^6 = 192,000 = 1.92 x 10^5. Using 5 generations gives 9.6 x 10^4, using 7 gives 3.84 x 10^5, and 1.2 x 10^4 is only 2 generations. From the 2B pack: Prokaryotes, Viruses and Microbial Genetics

Q75Which statement correctly pairs a structure with its function?

D. Lipid A is the endotoxin portion of LPS. Teichoic acids are in Gram-positive walls, capsules resist phagocytosis, and porins are channels, not resistance genes. From the 2B pack: Prokaryotes, Viruses and Microbial Genetics

Q76In Griffith's experiment, which injection killed mice and yielded live S bacteria?

C. R cells absorbed DNA from dead S cells and gained the capsule. Heat-killed S alone cannot grow, live R alone is harmless, and heat-killed R is harmless. From the 2B pack: Prokaryotes, Viruses and Microbial Genetics

Q77Two influenza strains infect the same cell and produce a virus with a novel hemagglutinin that is not recognized by existing antibodies. This process is:

D. Exchange of RNA segments is reassortment, called shift. Drift is gradual point mutation, lysogenic conversion is a phage process, and influenza does not use reverse transcription. From the 2B pack: Prokaryotes, Viruses and Microbial Genetics

Q78What is the formal charge on sulfur in the SO2 structure with one S=O double bond, one S-O single bond and one lone pair on S?

D. Sulfur has 6 valence electrons, 2 nonbonding electrons (one lone pair) and 3 bonds (one double and one single). The formal charge is 6 - 2 - 3 = +1. Zero would need 4 bonds with the same lone pair. A charge of -1 or +2 does not match the electron count of this structure. From the 5B pack: Bonding, Molecular Structure and Stereochemistry

Q79In which compound is the C-H bond most acidic?

B. The sp carbon of propyne has 50 percent s character, stabilizing the conjugate base (pKa about 25). Propene's sp2 C-H (about 44) and the alkane C-H bonds (about 50) are far less acidic. From the 5B pack: Bonding, Molecular Structure and Stereochemistry

Q80Which compound has the highest boiling point?

D. Octane is linear and has the most electrons and surface area, so its London forces are strongest. Hexane and propane are smaller. 2,2,3,3-Tetramethylbutane is a compact, branched C8 isomer that has less surface contact and boils lower than octane. From the 5B pack: Bonding, Molecular Structure and Stereochemistry

Q81How many stereocenters are in the open-chain form of glucose, an aldohexose (CHO-CHOH-CHOH-CHOH-CHOH-CH2OH)?

B. C2 to C5 each carry four different groups, while C1 (CHO) and C6 (CH2OH) are not stereocenters. That is four stereocenters and 2^4 = 16 aldohexose stereoisomers. From the 5B pack: Bonding, Molecular Structure and Stereochemistry

Q82How many stereoisomers does 2,3-butanediol have?

D. It has two stereocenters with identical ends, so the (R,S) form is meso. The stereoisomers are (R,R), (S,S) and meso, giving three rather than four. From the 5B pack: Bonding, Molecular Structure and Stereochemistry

Q83Magnesium has isotopes ²⁴Mg (78.99%, 23.985 u), ²⁵Mg (10.00%, 24.986 u), and ²⁶Mg (11.01%, 25.983 u). What is the average atomic mass?

B. The weighted average is 0.7899(23.985) + 0.1000(24.986) + 0.1101(25.983) = 24.31 u. The simple mean of the three masses (24.99) ignores abundance, and 23.99 is just the most abundant isotope. From the 4E pack: Atoms, Nuclear Chemistry and the Periodic Table

Q84A 160 mg sample of an isotope with a half-life of 6.0 days is stored for 18 days. How much remains?

B. 18 days is 3 half-lives, so 160 x (1/2)^3 = 20 mg. 53 mg would come from linear decay, 80 mg is only one half-life, and 10 mg is four half-lives. From the 4E pack: Atoms, Nuclear Chemistry and the Periodic Table

Q85Which set of quantum numbers (n, l, m_l, m_s) describes an allowed electron?

D. For n = 4, l can be 3 and m_l can be -3, so the last set is allowed. In (3,3,...) l equals n, in (4,2,3,...) m_l exceeds l, and a spin of 0 is not allowed. From the 4E pack: Atoms, Nuclear Chemistry and the Periodic Table

Q86Which atom has the smallest radius?

A. Across period 3, Z_eff rises while electrons enter the same shell, so radius shrinks and Si is the smallest of Na, Mg, Al, and Si. Na is the largest because it has the lowest nuclear charge. From the 4E pack: Atoms, Nuclear Chemistry and the Periodic Table

Q87How many grams of CO₂ form when 22.0 g of propane (C₃H₈, 44.1 g/mol) burns completely?

C. 22.0 g is 0.499 mol propane, and each gives 3 CO2, so 1.497 mol x 44.01 = 65.9 g. 22.0 g forgets the factor of 3, 87.8 g uses the water coefficient (4) instead of the CO2 coefficient (3), and 132 g doubles the answer. From the 4E pack: Atoms, Nuclear Chemistry and the Periodic Table

Q88A compound dissolved in water is extracted with dichloromethane (density 1.33 g/mL). In the separatory funnel, where is the organic layer?

C. Layer position depends on density. Dichloromethane is denser than water, so the organic layer is on the bottom. The top would be right for ether. The solvents are immiscible, so layers form, and the solute does not change which solvent is denser. From the 5C pack: Separations, Purification and Spectroscopy

Q89Where should the thermometer bulb be placed during a distillation?

C. The bulb must sit in the vapor that is about to enter the condenser so it reads the boiling temperature of the distilling vapor. In the liquid it reads the pot temperature, and the condenser top or mantle would read neither the vapor temperature nor the boiling point. From the 5C pack: Separations, Purification and Spectroscopy

Q90Pentane, hexane, and heptane are injected into a GC with a nonpolar column. Which elutes first?

A. In GC, order follows volatility, so the lowest-boiling alkane exits first. Larger molecules with higher boiling points are retained longer, and the three have different boiling points so they separate. From the 5C pack: Separations, Purification and Spectroscopy

Q91In IEF, a protein with pI 6.0 is placed in a region of the gel at pH 9.0. In which direction does it first move?

D. At pH 9 (above its pI) the protein is net negative, so it migrates toward the anode, where the acidic end lies, until it reaches pH 6. It moves because it is charged, and it would only head toward the cathode if it were net positive. From the 5C pack: Separations, Purification and Spectroscopy

Q922-Bromopropane gives which 1H NMR pattern?

D. The two equivalent CH3 groups each have one neighboring H, so a 6H doublet results, and the CH has six neighbors, so a septet results. A triplet and quartet describes ethyl, and a 9H singlet is tert-butyl. From the 5C pack: Separations, Purification and Spectroscopy

Q93A person at a party follows one conversation yet turns when her name is spoken across the room. This is best explained by:

B. Treisman's attenuation allows highly meaningful stimuli such as one's name to pass. An all-or-none filter would block it. The phenomenon is not controlled processing or a failure to notice a change. From the 6B pack: Attention, Cognition, Consciousness, Memory and Language

Q94A disease affects 2 percent of a population and a test detects 90 percent of cases with a 10 percent false positive rate. Among 1000 people, about what fraction of those who test positive have the disease?

A. Of 1000, 20 have the disease and 18 test positive. Of the 980 healthy, 98 test positive. So 18 / (18 + 98) = 18 / 116, about 15 percent. Ninety percent ignores the base rate. From the 6B pack: Attention, Cognition, Consciousness, Memory and Language

Q95In Libet's experiment, the readiness potential began before participants reported awareness of the urge to move. This is often interpreted as raising questions about:

B. Brain activity preceding reported intention suggests that the decision may begin unconsciously. The other options do not concern the timing of conscious intention. From the 6B pack: Attention, Cognition, Consciousness, Memory and Language

Q96A patient with slow respiration and pinpoint pupils is given a drug that reverses the symptoms. The drug is most likely:

A. Opioid overdose is reversed by the mu antagonist naloxone. Flumazenil reverses benzodiazepines, haloperidol is an antipsychotic, and physostigmine is an anticholinesterase. From the 6B pack: Attention, Cognition, Consciousness, Memory and Language

Q97After seeing a video, witnesses asked how fast the cars 'smashed' report higher speeds and glass that was not present. This demonstrates the:

B. A leading verb changed reconstruction of the event. The other options concern list position, context match, and distributed practice. From the 6B pack: Attention, Cognition, Consciousness, Memory and Language

Q98Which event is directly responsible for the repolarization phase of an action potential?

B. K+ efflux returns the membrane toward rest. Na+ channel opening causes the rising phase, the pump is not what stops the spike, and Ca2+ entry matters at the terminal. From the 7A pack: Biological and Individual Influences on Behavior

Q99Prolonged elevated cortisol is most associated with

A. Hippocampal neurons are sensitive to chronic glucocorticoids, so the hippocampus shrinks and memory suffers. Cortisol suppresses rather than boosts immunity, raises rather than lowers blood glucose, and chronic stress heightens rather than reduces anxiety. From the 7A pack: Biological and Individual Influences on Behavior

Q100Two children share a genotype that sets a high and a low IQ range. Their different scores in enriched versus deprived homes illustrate

D. Genes set limits and environment determines the position within them. Genetic determinism ignores the environment effect, passive correlation involves parent-supplied environments, and display rules concern emotion expression. From the 7A pack: Biological and Individual Influences on Behavior

Q101Which theorist used factor analysis to identify 16 source traits?

C. Cattell's 16PF is built on factor analysis. Allport used trait levels, Eysenck three dimensions, Mischel stressed situations. From the 7A pack: Biological and Individual Influences on Behavior

Q102A patient has 3 months of hallucinations and disorganized speech with declining work function. Diagnosis

B. 1 to 6 months of symptoms fits schizophreniform. Schizophrenia needs 6 months and brief psychotic disorder is under a month. Schizoaffective disorder also needs a concurrent major mood episode, which is not described here. From the 7A pack: Biological and Individual Influences on Behavior

Q103Fechner's law states that sensation grows with the

B. Fechner's law is S = k log I. A square or exponent describes Stevens' power law forms, and a reciprocal would decrease sensation as intensity rises. From the 6A pack: Sensation and Perception

Q104A person stops noticing a perfume after several minutes. Which process is most directly responsible?

D. Constant stimulation reduces olfactory receptor responding, which is adaptation. Lateral inhibition sharpens contrast, and gate control concerns pain. From the 6A pack: Sensation and Perception

Q105Finding a red letter among green letters is fast regardless of how many green letters there are. This indicates

B. A target defined by one feature pops out in parallel, so the time does not scale with the number of distractors. Serial search would slow with more items. From the 6A pack: Sensation and Perception

Q106Which fiber type carries slow, dull, burning pain?

D. C fibers are unmyelinated and conduct slowly, so they carry dull, burning pain. A-delta fibers are thin and myelinated and carry the fast, sharp component, A-beta fibers carry touch, and motor neurons are efferent. From the 6A pack: Sensation and Perception

Q107Reading a smudged letter as an A in CAT but an H in THE is an example of

B. Context supplies expectations that resolve the ambiguity. Bottom-up detection would give the same reading in both cases. From the 6A pack: Sensation and Perception

Q108A student does not study the night before an exam so that a poor grade can be blamed on lack of preparation instead of ability. This is:

B. Creating an obstacle in advance protects the perceived ability from a failure. Self-monitoring is adjusting behavior to the situation, effort justification is rationalizing the cost of a goal, and group-serving bias concerns in-group attributions. From the 8B pack: Social Thinking: Attribution, Prejudice and Stereotypes

Q109In Fiske's stereotype content model, which group is stereotyped as low in warmth and high in competence?

D. Low warmth with high competence produces envy. Pity goes with high warmth and low competence, admiration with high on both, and contempt with low on both. From the 8B pack: Social Thinking: Attribution, Prejudice and Stereotypes

Q110Teachers are told that certain students are about to make large gains, but the students were chosen at random. At year's end, those students gained more. This is the:

B. Teacher expectations changed teacher behavior, which improved performance, a self-fulfilling prophecy (Rosenthal and Jacobson, 1968). Stereotype lift, halo effect, and mere exposure do not describe expectation-driven performance gains. From the 8B pack: Social Thinking: Attribution, Prejudice and Stereotypes

Q111A worker who believes that class inequality is fair and that anyone can succeed by working hard and who ignores structural barriers illustrates:

D. System justification is the motivation to view existing arrangements as fair. Class consciousness is awareness of shared class interests, and relative deprivation is feeling worse off than a reference group. From the 8B pack: Social Thinking: Attribution, Prejudice and Stereotypes

Q112A skilled typist and a beginner each type in front of coworkers. According to Zajonc's drive theory, what is most likely?

A. Arousal strengthens the dominant response, which is accurate typing for the expert and errors for the beginner. Neither uniform improvement nor uniform decline fits, and reversing the pattern contradicts the theory. From the 7B pack: Social Processes and Group Behavior

Q113The Stanford prison experiment is most criticized because:

B. Reports of guard instruction and role expectations undermine claims that roles alone produced abuse. The study had few participants, and its dramatic results are the source of its fame, not an absence of change. From the 7B pack: Social Processes and Group Behavior

Q114Which feature distinguishes groupthink from group polarization?

A. Groupthink involves self-censorship and pressure on dissenters. Polarization involves shifting to extremes through discussion, so the other options describe polarization or neither. From the 7B pack: Social Processes and Group Behavior

Q115Milgram's agentic state describes a person who:

C. People in the agentic state see themselves as instruments. Conscience-driven action is autonomous, peer following is conformity, and crowd anonymity is deindividuation. From the 7B pack: Social Processes and Group Behavior

Q116A new hire learns office customs by watching coworkers. This is mainly:

C. Adult learning in a new setting is secondary socialization. Primary socialization is early childhood, anticipatory socialization precedes a role, and total institutions are isolated settings. From the 7B pack: Social Processes and Group Behavior

Q117In Aplysia, repeated gentle touches to the siphon reduce the gill-withdrawal reflex. The best cellular explanation is

A. Short-term habituation reflects presynaptic depression, with less transmitter released by the sensory neuron. Serotonin from a facilitating interneuron underlies sensitization, motor receptors remain responsive, and CREB-dependent growth underlies long-term sensitization. From the 7C pack: Learning and Attitude Change

Q118A patient's fear of dogs is extinguished in therapy but returns when the patient visits the original place of the dog bite. This is

A. The CR returned when the CS was encountered in the acquisition context after extinction elsewhere, which is renewal. Reinstatement needs an unsignaled UCS, generalization needs a similar stimulus, and negative reinforcement is an operant concept. From the 7C pack: Learning and Attitude Change

Q119A parent says, "Finish your homework, then you may play video games." This applies

D. A more probable activity (games) is used to reinforce a less probable one (homework). The sleeper effect concerns persuasion, the matching law concerns choice among schedules, and no stimulus pairing is described. From the 7C pack: Learning and Attitude Change

Q120To teach a pigeon to peck a disk that it never pecks spontaneously, a trainer should first reinforce

D. Shaping rewards successive approximations of the target. Waiting for a full peck gives nothing to reinforce, punishment would not build the response, and extinction removes reinforcement. From the 7C pack: Learning and Attitude Change

Q121A student watches a demonstration of a surgical knot but cannot repeat it later because the steps are not remembered. Which of Bandura's processes failed?

B. The learner noticed the demonstration but did not store the steps, so retention failed. Attention was adequate, motivation concerns incentive to perform, and reproduction concerns physical ability, which was not the problem described. From the 7C pack: Learning and Attitude Change

Q122A city funds free public pools to improve fitness. Residents also form friendships and neighborhood groups. The friendships are best described as a:

A. Friendships were not the stated goal and they benefit the community, so they are a latent function. A manifest function is intended, and a dysfunction is harmful. From the 9A pack: Social Structure, Theories and Institutions

Q123A student believes teachers think she is weak at math, then performs poorly. Cooley's looking-glass self describes which step?

D. The looking-glass self starts with imagining how we appear and are judged. Test scores are objective, and pride is only one possible feeling. From the 9A pack: Social Structure, Theories and Institutions

Q124Which scenario best illustrates intersectionality?

D. Overlapping identities combine into distinct disadvantage. Equal barriers and single-factor explanations contradict the concept. From the 9A pack: Social Structure, Theories and Institutions

Q125Durkheim would most likely interpret communal worship as:

C. He saw ritual as creating and renewing collective bonds. False consciousness is Marx, and the other options do not match his argument. From the 9A pack: Social Structure, Theories and Institutions

Q126Which person best fits the sick role as Parsons defined it?

C. Parsons required exemption plus effort to recover and help-seeking. Malingering and ignoring treatment violate the obligations, and blame violates a right. From the 9A pack: Social Structure, Theories and Institutions

Q127A neighborhood is racially separated, though no law requires it. This is best called:

B. Without a legal mandate the pattern is de facto. De jure requires a law. Hypersegregation requires high scores on several dimensions, and reproduction concerns passing class across generations. From the 10A pack: Social Inequality and Health Disparities

Q128A Lorenz curve that lies close to the line of equality indicates a Gini coefficient that is:

A. Small area between curve and line yields a low Gini, near 0. A high Gini needs a large gap, 0.5 is arbitrary, and the coefficient cannot be negative. From the 10A pack: Social Inequality and Health Disparities

Q129Comparing a daughter's occupation with her mother's measures:

C. Comparisons across generations are intergenerational. Intragenerational compares one person over time, horizontal means no change in class rank, and structural concerns economy-wide change. From the 10A pack: Social Inequality and Health Disparities

Q130Credentials such as degrees are which form of Bourdieu's cultural capital?

D. Formal qualifications are institutionalized cultural capital. Embodied means ingrained manners and dispositions, objectified means cultural goods such as art or books, and symbolic capital is prestige, so a diploma is none of these. From the 10A pack: Social Inequality and Health Disparities

Q131Recent immigrants with better health than native-born peers illustrates:

B. Selective migration often yields healthier arrivals. Weathering and allostatic load describe stress wear, and social causation describes SES effects. From the 10A pack: Social Inequality and Health Disparities

Q132A man remembers more of the adjectives he judged to describe himself than adjectives he judged for a stranger. This best illustrates

D. Processing words in relation to a rich self-schema gives better encoding and retrieval, which is the self-reference effect. The spotlight effect concerns beliefs about being noticed, self-serving bias concerns attributions, and the looking-glass self concerns imagined judgments by others. From the 8A pack: Self-Concept, Identity and Personality Formation

Q133A college junior chose engineering after trying several fields and now says, 'I am sure of it.' Marcia status:

A. Commitment after exploration is achievement. Foreclosure lacks exploration, moratorium lacks commitment, and diffusion lacks both. From the 8A pack: Self-Concept, Identity and Personality Formation

Q134Gilligan criticized Kohlberg primarily because

A. Gilligan argued Kohlberg's all-male sample and justice focus undervalued a care orientation. Adolescents were included, moral reasoning was the target of his study, and the work used humans. From the 8A pack: Self-Concept, Identity and Personality Formation

Q135A waiter is formal with customers but jokes freely in the kitchen. In Goffman's dramaturgical terms the kitchen is

D. Back stage is where the performance is dropped. The dining floor is front stage, a total institution is an enclosed setting like a prison, and the generalized other is Mead's concept. From the 8A pack: Self-Concept, Identity and Personality Formation

Q136A child insists that she would turn into a boy if she cut her hair short. According to Kohlberg's account of gender understanding she lacks gender

B. Gender constancy is the understanding that gender persists despite changes in appearance and comes after identity and stability. Expression and orientation are not stages of gender understanding. From the 8A pack: Self-Concept, Identity and Personality Formation

Q137A woman is the youngest child in her family, a pianist, and a first-generation college graduate. Which pair correctly labels two of these statuses?

A. Birth order is assigned, while becoming a pianist or graduate takes effort. Master status depends on dominance in others' eyes, not on being listed first. From the 8C pack: Social Interactions and Relationships

Q138How many pairwise ties exist among 7 people?

C. n(n-1)/2 = 7 x 6 / 2 = 21. Fourteen is only n x 2, 28 is the count for 8 people, and 42 forgets to divide n(n-1) by two. Each wrong number comes from a counting slip, not a different formula. From the 8C pack: Social Interactions and Relationships

Q139A clerk refuses a form because a box was written in blue ink instead of black, even though the information is complete. This is best described as:

A. Rigid rule following that defeats the purpose is Merton's ritualism. The scenario does not involve a charismatic leader, role change, or tie formation. From the 8C pack: Social Interactions and Relationships

Q140A person grows fonder of an unfamiliar song after hearing it several times. This is the:

C. Repeated exposure increasing liking is the mere exposure effect. The halo effect is about attractiveness, matching is about pairing by looks, and reciprocity is liking those who like us. From the 8C pack: Social Interactions and Relationships

Q141A person does not help at an accident scene because many others are watching and each assumes someone else will act. This is:

D. The belief that others will act spreads out personal responsibility. Pluralistic ignorance is misreading calm as no emergency. From the 8C pack: Social Interactions and Relationships

Q142A patient reports intense sadness during an interview but shows a blank face and monotone voice. Which statement is accurate?

C. Feeling sadness (cognitive) without expression (behavioral) means components can dissociate. The patient clearly has a cognitive component. Mood and emotion are different, and nothing shows that physiology is absent. From the 6C pack: Emotion and Stress

Q143A runner says she feels excited because she notices her heart pounding at the starting line. Which theory does this most directly illustrate?

D. Perceiving bodily change as the source of the feeling is James-Lange. Cannon-Bard has parallel output, Lazarus has appraisal first, and Yerkes-Dodson concerns arousal and performance. From the 6C pack: Emotion and Stress

Q144A patient with bilateral amygdala damage would most likely show

D. The amygdala is central to threat detection and fear. Declarative memory formation relies on the hippocampus, circadian rhythm on the hypothalamic suprachiasmatic nucleus, and facial movement on motor pathways. From the 6C pack: Emotion and Stress

Q145A patient has low cortisol and elevated ACTH. Where is the most likely problem?

D. Low cortisol with high ACTH means the pituitary is responding appropriately and the adrenal cortex fails to respond (primary adrenal insufficiency). A pituitary or hypothalamic failure would give low ACTH, and the medulla does not make cortisol. From the 6C pack: Emotion and Stress

Q146A town surveys all residents in a single year and finds that every age group reports lower trust in banks than in the previous survey, after a banking crisis. This is best explained as a

C. A change shared by all ages at one moment is a period effect. A cohort effect would differ by birth era. An age effect repeats at a stage of life in every cohort. A selection effect is a bias in who is sampled, which is not suggested. From the 9B pack: Demographics and Demographic Change

Q147A company hires only through referrals from current employees, who are mostly of one race, and the workforce stays uniform though no manager says anything biased. This is best described as

A. A neutral-looking policy that yields unequal results is institutional discrimination. Interpersonal racism by managers would need a person's bias or acts, and none is shown. Symbolic ethnicity is occasional identification with an ancestral culture. Amalgamation is the blending of groups into a new culture. From the 9B pack: Demographics and Demographic Change

Q148A man who identifies as straight sometimes has sex with men. Which concept best explains the mismatch?

C. Orientation, behavior, and identity are separate dimensions that need not agree. Orientation is not chosen day to day. Behavior alone does not set orientation. Identity is a label a person uses, not a biological trait. From the 9B pack: Demographics and Demographic Change

Q149In a country's pyramid, a deep notch appears at ages 80 to 84. What is the most likely cause?

D. A notch is a small cohort, often from a past event that cut births. A baby boom would show a bulge. Young immigrants would affect the middle. Women's longevity widens the female side but does not carve a notch. From the 9B pack: Demographics and Demographic Change

Q150Which is the best example of an intervening obstacle in Lee's model?

A. Fees and border barriers lie between origin and destination. A shortage of jobs is a push factor. Higher wages and relatives abroad are pull factors. From the 9B pack: Demographics and Demographic Change

Q151A stem reads: "Which of the following findings, if true, would most weaken the author's claim that tutoring raises exam scores?" What kind of question is this?

B. B is correct. The stem brings in a hypothetical finding to test the argument, which is the signature of new information questions. A (Misclassified question type): Main idea stems ask what the passage is about as a whole, with no hypothetical finding. C (Misclassified question type): Function stems ask why the author mentions something already in the passage. D (Misclassified question type): Tone stems ask about the author's attitude, not about outside evidence. From the CARS pack: CARS Strategy and Reasoning Skills

Q152In the sentence "Since wages rose, spending must have risen," the clause "wages rose" is:

C. C is correct. Since marks the following clause as support for the claim that spending rose. A (Reversal): The conclusion is that spending rose, which follows the comma. B (Distortion): Nothing is granted to an opponent. D (Distortion): No opposing view is presented. From the CARS pack: CARS Strategy and Reasoning Skills

Q153Evidence: every employee who attended the seminar later received a promotion. Conclusion: the seminar helps careers. Which is a required assumption?

D. D is correct. If another factor produced the promotions, the seminar's effect is not shown. Denying this assumption breaks the argument. A (Extreme language): The argument does not need such a broad claim. B (Extreme language): The argument needs only that promotions count as career success, not that they are the best measure. C (True but irrelevant): Enjoyment is not the link between attendance and promotion. From the CARS pack: CARS Strategy and Reasoning Skills